WAEC Physics past questions
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WAEC Physics Past Questions 2023 [Updated]

WAEC Physics past questions will help young physics students know the kind of questions they will likely face in their WAEC Examination.

The WAEC Examination is the highest examination written by people who have gotten to the level of leaving secondary school.

In this post, we are going to give you all the questions that they have asked before and the good thing is, WAEC sometimes repeat questions, so if you’re lucky, you might be seeing one or two questions.

You can review the 50 objectives, as well as the theory and practical questions from the 2023 WASSCE physics past exam, along with their answers, by checking the content below. Alternatively, you can use the table of contents to navigate directly to the section of your choice.

Table of Contents

WAEC Physics Questions and Answers

1. The instrument used to measure relative humidity is a
(a) Barometer
(b) Hydrometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Manometer
The correct answer is: (c) Hygrometer
2. Which part of the human eye performs the same function as the diaphragm in a lens camera?
(a) Choroid
(b) Iris
(c) Cornea
(d) Retina
The correct answer is: (b) Iris

3. An electron moves from an energy level of -8.6eV to another level of -3.5eV. Determine the frequency of the absorbed radiation. h=6.6×10−34 Jsh = 6.6 \times 10^{-34} \text{ Js}

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(a) 1.24×1015 Hz1.24 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz}

(b) 2.93×1015 Hz2.93 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz}

(c) 3.59×1015 Hz3.59 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz}

(d) 5.39×1015 Hz5.39 \times 10^{15} \text{ Hz}

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The correct answer is: (a) 1.24×1015𝐻𝑧

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4. A ball of mass 0.8 kg is dropped from a height, H. Just before hitting the ground, its velocity is

(a) 1.25m
(b) 1.60m
(c) 4.00m
(d) 6.25m
The correct answer is: (a) 1.25m

5. Which of the following statements about latent heat are correct? I. When ice MediaList, latent heat is absorbed II. When whater freezes, latent heat is given off III. When water evaporates, latent heat is absorbed IV. When water vapour condenses, latent heat is absorbed
(a) I and IV only
(b) II and III only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) II, III, and IV only
The correct answer is: (c) I, II and III only
6. Increasing the frequency of a sound waves produces a sound with
(a) Longer wavelength
(b) Reduced loudness
(c) Higher pitch
(d) More overtones
The correct answer is: (c) Higher pitch
7. Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the mode of oscillation of air in a tube for the first overtone?

Which of the following diagrams correctly illustrates the mode of oscillation of air in a tube

The correct answer is: (b)

8. In a mass spectrometer, an ion of charge, q and mass, m, moving in a path of radius, r, in a field of flux DensityLarge, BarProp, has a speed of
(a) mr/qB
(b) mq/qr
(c) Bqr/m
(d) mq/Br
The correct answer is: (c) Bqr/m
9. A sound of frequency 512 Hz reaches a listener 100m away. If the sound travels in air at s.t.p., what is its wavelength? [speed of sound in air = 331m/s]
(a) 0.195m
(b) 0.646m
(c) 1.550m
(d) 5.120m
The correct answer is: (b) 0.646m
10. In the Rutherford scattering experimental, a beam of alpha particles was fired at a thin gold film and few of the particle were deflected considerably. This shows that the nucleus of an atom
(a) Contains protons and electrons distributed in a tiny volume
(b) Is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
(c) Is distributed in a tiny volume and emits alpha particles
(d) Is concentrated in a tiny volume and contains alpha particles
The correct answer is: (b) Is positively charged and is concentrated in a tiny volume
11. A charge of 10C is transferred across a potential difference of 220V. Determine the work Done.
(a) 22J
(b) 210J
(c) 230J
(d) 2200J
The correct answer is: (d) 2200J
12. A solenoid is constructed by winding an insulated copper on a long test tube. A constant direct current is passed through the solenoid. Which of the following actions will not increase the strength of the magnetic field of the solenoid? Inserting a
(a) Nickel rod in the test tube
(b) Brass rod in the test tube
(c) Soft iron rod in the test tube
(d) Steel rod in the test tube
The correct answer is: (b) Brass rod in the test tube
13. The following statements are advantages of a solid dielectric material between the plates of a capacitor except that
(a) It keeps the plates at a fixed separation
(b) The maximum potential difference the capacitor can withstand is increased
(c) The capacitance of the capacitor of given dimensions is much greater than that of the plates in a vacuum
(d) It increases the electrical conduction of the capacitor
The correct answer is: (d) It increases the electrical conduction of the capacitor
14. Which of the following statements about a ferromagnetic material is correct?
(a) It attracts non magnegic materials
(b) Has low relative permeability
(c) Repels other magnetic materials
(d) Has a high susceptibility
The correct answer is: (d) Has a high susceptibility
15. A ball P, is released from the roof of a building at the same time as another Ball, Q, is thrown vertically upward from the base of the building. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The acceleration of P is greater than that of Q and both are in the same direction
(b) The acceleration of P is equal to that of Q and both are in the same direction
(c) The acceleration of P is equal to that of Q and are in opposite directions
(d) The acceleration of P is less than that of Q and both are in the same Directions.
The correct answer is: (c) The acceleration of P is equal to that of Q and are in opposite directions
16. A planet has mass, M, and radius R, if the universal gravitational constant is G, what is the expression for the escape velocity of an object on the planet?
(a) (2)12(b) (2)12(c) (0)12(d) (2)12The correct answer is: (b) Lung
17. The specific latent heat of vapourization of lead is 8.7×105−1, This means that 8.7×105J of thermal energy is required to change?
(a) 1Kg of molten lead to vapour at constant temperature and presssure
(b) 1kg of solid lead to vapour at constant temperature and pressure
(c) A given mass of molten lead to vapour at constant temperature and pressure
(d) 1kg of molten lead to vapour for every degree rise to temperature
The correct answer is: (a) 1 Kg of molten lead to vapour at constant temperature and presssure
18. A 100 kg device is pulled up a plane inclined at 30degree to the horizontal with a force of 1000N. If the coefficient of friction between the device and the surface is 0.25, determine the total force opposing the Motion. [g = 10m/s square]
(a) 216.5N
(b) 283.5N
(c) 716.5N
(d) 975.0N
The correct answer is: (c) 716.5N
19. Two object, A and B, accelerates from rest at uniform Rates. B accelerates twice as much as A. Compared to A, B travels
(a) Two times as far
(b) Three times as far
(c) Six times as far
(d) At the same distance as
The correct answer is: (a) Two times as far
20. The diagram below illustrates a hot metal suspended at the centre of a closed uniform box. Thermometers E, F, G and H are placed in contact with four sides of the box. Which of the thermometers would register the highest temperature?
The diagram illustrates a hot metal suspended at the centre of a closed uniform box

(a) E
(b) F
(c) G
(d) H
The correct answer is: No correct option

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21. A liquid is left in an open dish. After several days, there is less liquid in the dish. Which of the following statements explains this observation? The
(a) Most energetic molecules leave the surface and return
(b) Most energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air
(c) Least energetic molecules leave the surface and return
(d) Least energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into air
The correct answer is: (b) Most energetic molecules leave the surface and escape into the air
22. The color of the visible light region of the electromagnetic spectrum that have the shortest and longest wavelengths respectively are
(a) Red and blue
(b) Yellow and blue
(c) Indigo and violet
(d) Violet and red
The correct answer is: (d) Violet and red
23. Which of the following equations is not a correct mirror formula? [The symbols have their usual meanings]
(a) 1^ = 1^ + 1^(b) N = 360^(c) f = 1D(d) m = ^The correct answer is: (c) f = 1𝐷
24. An atom in an excited state is one whose
(a) Potential energy is mimimum
(b) Potential energy is maximum
(c) Electrons are in the conduction band
(d) Electrons have moved to a higher energy level
The correct answer is: (d) Electrons have moved to a higher energy level
25. The conclusive test for magnetism in a steel bar suspended horizontally at tis midpoint is when the bar
(a) Always settles in the magnetic N-S direction
(b) Always settles in the magnetic E-W directions
(c) Is repelled by a magnet
(d) Is attracted by a magnet
The correct answer is: (a) Always settles in the magnetic N-S direction
26. Which of the following devices is used to compare the relative magnitudes of charges on two given bodies?
(a) Electrophorus
(b) Ebonite rod
(c) Proof plane
(d) Gold leaf electroscope
The correct answer is: (d) Gold leaf electroscope
27. A direct current cannot pass through a parallel plate capacitor because
(a) The plates are non-conducting
(b) The plates have equal but opposite charges
(c) There is a leakage of charge from the plates
(d) The dielectric between the plates is non-conducting
The correct answer is: (d) The dielectric between the plates is non-conducting
28. The process of producing electric current by a changing magnetic field is referred to as
(a) Flux linkage
(b) Magnet induction
(c) Electromagnetic induction
(d) Electrostatic induction

The correct answer is: (c) Electromagnetic induction

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29. The sagging of overhead electrical wires is caused by
(a) Rough handling
(b) Radiation of heat
(c) Linear expansion
(d) Gravitational attraction
The correct answer is: (c) Linear expansion
30. A cell of emf 2 V has an internal resistance of 0.5ohm. A current of 0.4 A passes through an external resistor, P. Determine the resistance of P.
(a) 5.0ohms
(b) 4.5ohm
(c) 4.0ohm
(d) 1.0ohm
The correct answer is: (b) 4.5ohm
31. The property of a body that determines the direction of heat flow when the body is in contact with another body is the
(a) Power
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Temperature
(d) Mass
The correct answer is: (c) Temperature
32. In an RLC series circuit at resonance, the voltage across the resistor and the inductor are 30V and 40V respectively. Determine the voltage across the capacitor
(a) 30V
(b) 40V
(c) 50V
(d) 70V
The correct answer is: (b) 40V
33. The purpose of commutators in a direct current motor is to
(a) Increase the efficiency of the motor
(b) Reverse the direction of the current after every half rotation
(c) Enable a uniform couple to act on the coil
(d) Increase the number of rotations per second
The correct answer is: (b) Reverse the direction of the current after every half rotation
34. A lead bullet of mass 0.5kg is fired with a speed of 200m/s into a lead block of mass 0.95kg at Rest. Given that the lead block moves after the impact, determine its kinetic Energy.
(a) 50J
(b) 100J
(c) 150J
(d) 200J
The correct answer is: (b) No answer
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35. What is the name given to the force of attraction between the nucleons in the nucleus of an atom?
(a) Gravitational force
(b) Nuclear force
(c) Electrostatic force
(d) Magnetic force
The correct answer is: (b) Nuclear force
36. In a controlled thermal fission reactor, the use of control rods will not affect the
(a) Speed of the neutrons released on fission
(b) Rate of production of the neutrons
(c) Energy generated in the nuclear reactor
(d) Amount of radiation produced in the nuclear reactor
The correct answer is: (d) Amount of radiation produced in the nuclear reactor
37. The most appropriate value of fuse for a kettle rated 220V, 1. 06kW is
(a) 3A
(b) 4A
(c) 5A
(d) 6A
The correct answer is: (c) 5A
38. The type of mirror used by dentists to inspect the teeth of patients is a
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Cylindrical mirror
The correct answer is: (b) Concave mirror
The diagram below illustrates a mode of vibration of a wire of length 125cm. The speed of the waves along the wire is 120m/s. Use the diagram below to answer questions 39 and 40

Determine the wavelength of the waves

39. From the diagram above, determine the wavelength of the wave
(a) 0.25 m
(b) 0.50 m
(c) 0.75 m
(d) 1.00 m
The correct answer is: (b) 0.50 m
40. From the diagram above, determine the frequency of the waves.
(a) 24 Hz
(b) 192 Hz
(c) 240 Hz
(d) 286 Hz
The correct answer is: (c) 240 Hz
41. Which of the following statements about the properties of the electric field produced by charged parallel plates is not correct
(a) The electric field in the region outside the parallel plate is zero except for the edge effects
(b) The electric field is uniform everywhere in the space between the parallel plates
(c) The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates, except near the edges, depends on the magnitude of the charge on each plate
(d) The magnitude of the electric field strength at any point between the plates is directly proportional to the magnitude of the charge on each plate
The correct answer is:
42. A car P, with a velocity of 30ms −1 is travelling in the same direction as a Car, Q, with a velocity of 20ms−1 satisfies, the velocity of P relative to Q is
(a) 50ms −1(b) 45ms −1(c) 20ms−1(d) 10ms−1The correct answer is: (d) 10𝑚𝑠−1
43. The range of wavelengths of the infrared waves in an electromagnetic spectrum is 10−3-to 10−6-. The wavelength of the radiation is
(a) Equal to 10−3(b) Longer than 103- (c) Shorter than 10−6-(d) Longer than 10−6-The correct answer is: (c) Shorter than 10−6𝑚
44. When an electron jumps directly from an orbit of n = 4 to n = 2,
(a) A photon is emitted
(b) A photon is absorbed
(c) Two photons are emitted
(d) Two photons are absorbed
The correct answer is: (a) A photon is emitted
45. When a light-weight body and a massive body are acted upon by the same force for the same period of Time, the
(a) Momenta of both bodies remain the same
(b) Lighter body has a higher momentum
(c) Massive body has a higher momentum
(d) Massive body builds up a higher velocity
The correct answer is: (a) Momenta of both bodies remain the same
46. Which of the following devices is associated with alternating currents only?
(a) Induction coil
(b) Lead-acid accumulator
(c) Step up transformer
(d) Moving-coil galvanometer
The correct answer is: (c) Step up transformer

47. A body starts with an initial velocity of 20𝑚𝑠−1 and moves with a uniform acceleration, a for 1s seconds. Which of the following equations represents the distance, S, travelled?

paragraph

(a)𝑆=300+2𝑎225S=300+2252a
​(b)𝑆=300+2252𝑎S=300+2a22​(c)
(c)𝑆=300+2252𝑎S=300 225
​(d)𝑆=300=300a+225
​The correct answer is: (c) 𝑆=300+225𝑎2

48. The ratio of maximum range to maximum height of a projectile is 4. Determine the angle of projection
(a) (b) 30ø(c) 40(d) 600The correct answer is: (c) 40𝑜
49. The following statements are observations made about a towing vehicle and a bus that is being towed. I. The force exerted on the bus by the towing vehicle is of the same magnitude as the force that the bus exerts on the road II. The force exerted on the bus magnitude as the force exerted on the towing vehicle by the bus. III. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus greater than the force exerted by the bus on the towing vehicle. IV. The towing vehicle exerts a force on the bus that is the same as the force the road exerts on the towing vehicle. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I, II and III only
(d) II, III and IV only
The correct answer is: (b) II only
50. The diagram below illustrates a velocity-time graph. Determine the distance between X and Y.

Determine the wavelength of the waves

(a) 10.0m
(b) 40.0m
(c) 80.0m
(d) 160.0m
The correct answer is: (d) 160.0m

Frequently Asked Questions

How many questions are in physics waec?

You will expected to answer 50 questions in total

What score is F9 in WAEC?

With WAEC grading, an F9 is any score under 9.00 scale

Conclusion

That’s it on this topic and if you need any clarification, you can reach out to us through the comment section.

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